In Friedman's urn model ($a_{0} = 1, b_{0} = 0, a = d = 0, b = c = 1$), we have $\operatorname{card}(\Omega_{n}) = n!$. For $0 < u < v$ and $|x|$ sufficiently small, $$H(x,u,v) = \sum_{n=0}^{+\infty} \frac{x^{n}}{n!} \left( \sum_{p=1}^{+\infty} p^{n} (v-u)^{n+1} \left(\frac{u}{v}\right)^{p} \right)$$ Using question 6, justify that, for all integers $n$ and all $u$ and $v$ such that $0 < u < v$, the sum $$\sum_{p=1}^{+\infty} p^{n} (v-u)^{n+1} \left(\frac{u}{v}\right)^{p}$$ is a polynomial function of $u$ and $v$.
In Friedman's urn model ($a_{0} = 1, b_{0} = 0, a = d = 0, b = c = 1$), we have $\operatorname{card}(\Omega_{n}) = n!$. For $0 < u < v$ and $|x|$ sufficiently small,
$$H(x,u,v) = \sum_{n=0}^{+\infty} \frac{x^{n}}{n!} \left( \sum_{p=1}^{+\infty} p^{n} (v-u)^{n+1} \left(\frac{u}{v}\right)^{p} \right)$$
Using question 6, justify that, for all integers $n$ and all $u$ and $v$ such that $0 < u < v$, the sum
$$\sum_{p=1}^{+\infty} p^{n} (v-u)^{n+1} \left(\frac{u}{v}\right)^{p}$$
is a polynomial function of $u$ and $v$.