Consider the improper integral $\int _ { 2 } ^ { \infty } \frac { 1 } { x ( \log x ) ^ { 2 } } d x$ and the infinite series $\sum _ { k = 2 } ^ { \infty } \frac { 1 } { k ( \log k ) ^ { 2 } }$. Which of the following is/are true?\\
(A) The integral converges but the series does not converge.\\
(B) The integral does not converge but the series converges.\\
(C) Both the integral and the series converge.\\
(D) The integral and the series both fail to converge.