Deduce that, as $n$ tends to $+ \infty$,
$$I _ { n } \sim K _ { n } .$$
where $I _ { n } = \int _ { 0 } ^ { 1 } \frac { 1 } { \left( 1 + t ^ { 2 } \right) ^ { n } } \mathrm {~d} t$ and $K _ { n } = \int _ { 0 } ^ { + \infty } \frac { 1 } { \left( 1 + t ^ { 2 } \right) ^ { n } } \mathrm {~d} t$.