We consider a function $f$ in $\mathcal{B}_1$ whose partial derivatives $\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}$ and $\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}$ are in $\mathcal{B}_2$. We set, with the notations of part III: $$\forall q \in \mathbb{R}^+,\quad F(q) = \frac{1}{2\pi}\int_0^{2\pi} \hat{f}(q,\theta)\,\mathrm{d}\theta = 2\int_q^{+\infty} \frac{r\bar{f}(r)}{\sqrt{r^2-q^2}}\,\mathrm{d}r$$ Justify that $F$ is of class $C^1$ on $]0, +\infty[$ and that near $+\infty$ we have $F(q) = O\left(\frac{1}{q}\right)$.
We consider a function $f$ in $\mathcal{B}_1$ whose partial derivatives $\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}$ and $\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}$ are in $\mathcal{B}_2$. We set, with the notations of part III:
$$\forall q \in \mathbb{R}^+,\quad F(q) = \frac{1}{2\pi}\int_0^{2\pi} \hat{f}(q,\theta)\,\mathrm{d}\theta = 2\int_q^{+\infty} \frac{r\bar{f}(r)}{\sqrt{r^2-q^2}}\,\mathrm{d}r$$
Justify that $F$ is of class $C^1$ on $]0, +\infty[$ and that near $+\infty$ we have $F(q) = O\left(\frac{1}{q}\right)$.