We consider a function $f$ in $\mathcal{B}_1$ such that $\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}$ and $\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}$ are in $\mathcal{B}_2$. The Radon inversion formula states: $\forall (x,y) \in \mathbb{R}^2,\ f(x,y) = \frac{-1}{\pi} \int_0^{+\infty} \frac{R_{x,y}^{\prime}(q)}{q}\,\mathrm{d}q$.
Are the hypotheses made on $f$ necessary for the Radon inversion formula to be verified at the point $(x,y) = (0,0)$?